A 28-year-old man with type 1 diabetes uses a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion. He develops nausea after the pump gives an occlusion alarm; his blood glucose concentration is 15.6 mmol/L and blood ketones are 2.8 mmol/L. He has no fever, is haemodynamically stable and has no alternate source of insulin available through the pump. Which one of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?

Filed under internal-medicine › endocrinology › diabetes-mellitus › insulin

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