A 76-year-old woman taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation attends for a routine INR check, which returns at 11.0 (target 2.0–3.0). She recently completed a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. She feels entirely well, and careful assessment shows no bruising, melaena, haematuria or other bleeding, and no recent falls or head injury. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
Keep going — a set of ten like this one, one at a time.
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