A 79-year-old woman is admitted with ongoing lower gastrointestinal bleeding and a haemoglobin concentration of 72 g/L (reference range 115–155). She is receiving red-cell transfusion, has been confined to bed and has no previous venous thromboembolism. Anticoagulant prophylaxis is being considered, but fresh blood continues to appear on repeated rectal examinations. Which one of the following is the most appropriate venous thromboembolism prevention?
Keep going — a set of ten like this one, one at a time.
Practise moreMore from Cardiovascular
See allA 76-year-old man reports that for three months he has felt light-headed and has twice nearly fainted walking up the hill to the shops, together with a tight fe…
Pre-internship · common
A 34-year-old man who injects heroin presents with two weeks of fevers, sweats, a cough and pleuritic chest pain on both sides. His temperature is 39.2 °C, puls…
Clinical rotations · middle twist
A 52-year-old Aboriginal woman from a community in Cape York presents with a week of palpitations and breathlessness on walking to the store. She had several ep…
Pre-internship · middle twist
A 68-year-old man is brought in by his wife after his third collapse in a month. Each time he has been sitting watching television, has suddenly gone grey and s…
Clinical rotations · middle twist
A 52-year-old man attends for a health assessment. He does not smoke, has no diabetes, chronic kidney disease or established cardiovascular disease, and his fat…
Clinical rotations · middle twist