A 34-year-old woman attends her general practitioner for routine preventive care. She has no symptoms, has never had cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, and her previous screening was performed with a clinician-collected sample. The report shows negative oncogenic human papillomavirus, with negative cytology from the same sample. Which one of the following is the most appropriate interval for her next cervical screening test?
Keep going — a set of ten like this one, one at a time.
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