A 37-year-old man presents with a painless red patch in his left eye. He denies trauma, vision changes, or any discharge. He has a history of chronic hypertension. Examination is shown in the attached picture. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Keep going — a set of ten like this one, one at a time.
Practise moreMore from Year 4
See allA a 68-year-old man with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease presents with worsening kidney function over the past two weeks. He started a proton pump…
Clinical rotations · common
A 54-year-old man with no family history of prostate cancer attends his GP for a routine check-up. He is asymptomatic and has no significant past medical histor…
Clinical rotations · middle twist
A 58-year-old man with no symptoms attends your clinic for a general health check. He is concerned because his uncle and cousin both died of pancreatic cancer.…
Clinical rotations · middle twist
A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic diarrhea presents with muscle weakness and lethargy. Laboratory tests show: potassium 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L), b…
Clinical rotations · middle twist
A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion, rapid breathing, and general weakness. He has a history of chronic kidney disease. On exa…
Clinical rotations · common