A 29-year-old woman has a 1.4 L haemorrhage after an uncomplicated vaginal birth. The placenta is complete and there is no vaginal or cervical tear. Despite uterine massage, an oxytocin infusion and tranexamic acid, the uterus remains poorly contracted; her blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg and she has severe asthma. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next treatment?
Keep going — a set of ten like this one, one at a time.
Practise moreMore from Obstetrics and Gynaecology
See allA 32-year-old woman attends for the result of her first cervical screening test under the renewed National Cervical Screening Program. She is asymptomatic and h…
Clinical rotations · common
A 24-year-old woman with seven weeks of amenorrhoea and a positive home pregnancy test presents with two days of left-sided lower abdominal pain and light vagin…
Pre-internship · middle twist
A 34-year-old woman at 33 weeks in her third pregnancy, who smokes and has chronic hypertension, presents with two hours of constant severe abdominal pain that…
Pre-internship · middle twist
A 31-year-old woman in her first pregnancy presents at 36 weeks with a frontal headache and "flashing lights" for six hours. Her blood pressure was 11…
Pre-internship · common
A 32-year-old woman shares a bedroom with her partner, who has been admitted with laboratory-confirmed meningococcal meningitis. She has no fever or rash and fe…
Clinical rotations · middle twist