A 28-year-old man with schizophrenia that failed to respond to two previous antipsychotics has been taking clozapine for four months with good effect. He presents to his general practitioner with two days of sore throat, fever and malaise. His temperature is 38.5°C and his pharynx is inflamed without exudate. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?

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Filed under psychiatry › psychiatry › psychosis › antipsychotics

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