A 64-year-old woman develops sudden, profound painless loss of vision in her left eye 90 minutes before assessment. The left pupil has a relative afferent pupillary defect, and fundoscopy shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the macula. She has no ocular pain or history of trauma. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

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Filed under surgery › ophthalmology › retina › retinal-vessel-occlusion

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