A 72-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation who stopped her anticoagulant six months ago after a nosebleed wakes at 3 am with sudden severe pain in her left leg. When she arrives three hours later the leg below the knee is pale and cold, she cannot feel light touch over the dorsum of the foot, and she can only just wiggle her toes. The femoral pulse is present but the popliteal and pedal pulses are absent; the right leg is normal with full pulses. She has no history of claudication.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?
Keep going — a set of ten like this one, one at a time.
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