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Obstetrics and Gynaecologymiddle twist

A 34-year-old woman is reviewed after treatment with single-dose intramuscular methotrexate for a confirmed, unruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy. She remains well, with only mild pelvic discomfort. Her serum human chorionic gonadotrophin was 2650 IU/L on day 1, 3020 IU/L on day 4 and 2580 IU/L on day 7. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?